Contoh Soal Toeic Listening Dan Pembahasannya

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Posted in Contoh Soal Tagged #contoh soal TOEIC dalam bahasa inggris, #contoh soal toeic reading, #kumpulan soal TOEIC Dalam bahasa inggris, #Soal TOEIC dalam bahasa inggris beserta jawaban, #toeic listening and reading practice test.

Bagi sebagian besar para calon peserta tes TOEFL, bagian soal TOEFL listening dianggap sebagai bagian yang paling sulit diantara beberapa bagian lain seperti reading dan structure. Padahal sebenarnya reading dan structure justru merupakan bagian yang harus benar-benar dipelajari secara detail karena berkaitan langsung dengan tata bahasa. Sedangkan untuk bisa mengerjakan soal listening dengan lancar, diperlukan untuk berlatih berulang-ulang dan memperbanyak kosakata Bahasa Inggris.

Macam-macam bagian soal dalam TOEFL Listening

Pada dasarnya, soal-soal pada listening terdiri dari tiga bagian, yaitu part A, part B, dan part C. Sesi Listening ini terdiri dari 50 pertanyaan yang dikerjakan dalam waktu 40 menit, jadi secara matematis Anda hanya mempunyai waktu 48 detik untuk mengerjakan satu soalnya. Sesi ini juga dibagi menjadi tiga bagian soal. Bagian pertama (part A) adalah Short Conversation (percakapan singkat). Pada bagian ini Anda akan mendengarkan percakapan antar dua orang yang akan membahas berbagai macam topik yang akan menanyakan mengenai meaning (maksud kata), idiommatic expression, suggestion (rekomendasi/ saran), asumsi, prediksi, implikasi (maksud tersirat), problem (masalah pembicara), dan topik (tema pembicaraan). Jenis – jenis soal tersebut akan dengan mudah dan cepat Anda kerjakan jika Anda mengetahui cara mengerjakannya dengan baik, seperti: 1) Baca dulu pilihan-pilhan jawaban sebanyak-banyaknya ketika narator membaca direction. Jangan ambil pusing dengan direction yang dibaca narator. 2) konsentrasi lebih pada pembicara kedua, karena umumnya pertanyaan model ini lebih banyak tentang apa yang dimaksud oleh pembicara kedua. 3) Kalau tidak bisa menjawab satu soal, Tebak saja. Ingat waktu Anda sangat terbatas.

Tes TOEFL Online

Bagian kedua (part B) dalam sesi Listening adalah Longer Conversation (percakapan yang lebih panjang). Dalam bagian ini Anda akan mendengarkan beberapa percakapan yang lebih panjang antar dua orang yang akan membahas beberapa topik yang berkaitan dengan kehidupan Informal (percakapan informal) dan dunia akademis (percakapan akademis). 1) Percakapan informal adalah percakapan antar teman atau dengan orang tua. Pada bagian ini Anda harus memahami poin-poin penting dalam percakapan. 2) Percakapan akademis adalah percakapan antar murid/ mahasiswa dengan dosen di sebuah Universitas. Seperti halnya jenis percakapan sebelumnya, Anda harus memahami bagian-bagian penting dalam percakapan. Hal itu dikarenakan agar mudah dalam mengerjakan soal-soal yang ada. Pada Longer Conversation terdapat beberapa pertanyaan di setiap percakapan (conversation) nya.

Bagian ketiga (part C) atau terakhir adalah Talks and Lectures (percakapan panjang/ akademis). Dalam bagian ini Anda akan mendengarkan beberapa percakapan ataupun penjelasan dari seseorang yang membahas mengenai berbagai macam topik. Percakapan dan penjelasan yang digunakan pada bagian ini mengenai diskusi kelas, radio program,tour, dan lectures. 1) Diskusi kelas adalah percakapan yang terjadi dalam ruang kelas antar dua, tiga atau lebih pembicara. Saat mendengarkan percakapan, Anda harus merangkum poin-poin penting yang ada dalam percakapan tersebut. 2) Radio program adalah percakapan pendek yang menyajikan informasi berita dan Anda harus merangkum poin-poin penting yang ada dalam percakapan atau berita tersebut. 3) Tour adalah percakapan pendek yang menyajikan informasi faktual mengenai pariwisata. Anda harus memahami isi dari percakapan dengan merangkum hal-hal yang berkaitan dengan informasi who (siapa), what (apa), when (kapan), where (dimana), why (mengapa). 4) Lectures adalah percakapan mengenai subyek-subyek dlaam dunia akademis. Percakapan tersebut berupa perkuliahan yang terjadi di sebuah Universitas. Anda harus memahami isi atau bagian-bagian penting dari percakapan atau perkuliahan dengan merangkum hal-hal yang berkaitan dengan informasi who (siapa), what (apa), when (kapan), where (dimana), why (mengapa).

Mengenal Keberagaman Soal TOEFL Listening

Dalam mengerjakan soal part A, Anda diharapkan untuk fokus pada kalimat yang diucapkan oleh orang terakhir (orang kedua). Biasanya jawabannya adalah pernyataan yang sesuai dengan ujaran orang terakhir tersebut.Sebaliknya untuk mengerjakan part B, Anda diharapkan untuk membaca sekilas pertanyaan-pertanyaan yang diajukan agar nantinya Anda bisa mulai mengantisipasi tipe percakapan dan menebak pertanyaan apa yang akan diajukan pada percakapan selanjutnya. Lalu untuk mengerjakan soal TOEFL listening part C, Anda bisa mulai membayangkan situasi percakapan, siapa yang berbicara, dimana dan kapan percakapan tersebut berlangsung, dan sebagainya.

Berikut adalah beberapa contoh soal TOEFL listening dan pembahasannya:

  1. You will hear:
    We had expected fifty people to come to the party, but only thirty showed up.
    You will read:
    (A) Fifty people came to the party
    (B) Thirteen people came to the party
    (C) Thirty people came to the party
    (D) Nobody showed up so the party was cancelledKalimat terakhir menunjukkan bahwa hanya tiga puluh orang yang datang, sehingga Anda dapat langsung menjawab jawaban (C).
  2. You will hear:
    Man : I don’t feel like going out tonight. Let’s just stay home instead.
    Woman : OK, but I was looking forward to seeing the new movie.
    Third voice : What does the man want to do tonight?
    You will read:
    (A) Go to a party
    (B) Stay home
    (C) See a movie
    (D) SleepKalimat terakhir yang diucapkan oleh the man mengindikasikan bahwa ia lebih memilih untuk beristirahat di rumah. Maka dari itu, jawaban yang paling mendekati adalah jawaban (B).

Bagaimana Meningkatkan Kemampuan Listening?

Ketika percakapan sedang berlangsung, Anda diharapkan untuk berkonsentrasi penuh pada isi percakapan untuk dapat memahami keseluruhan tema percakapan dan akan memudahkan Anda untuk dapat menjawab seluruh pertanyaan yang diajukan berkaitan dengan percakapan yang dimaksud. Adapun jeda antara pertanyaan satu dengan pertanyaan lainnya dapat Anda gunakan untuk membaca sekilas opsi jawaban yang ada sebelum soal TOEFL listening dibacakan.

Jadi seperti yang telah dijelaskan di atas bahwa teknik terbaik untuk dapat menguasai soal-soal listening adalah dengan berlatih sesering mungkin dengan mengacu pada berbagai buku panduan TOEFL yang dapat dengan mudah ditemukan di toko buku maupun perpustakaan. Untuk memperkaya perbendaharaan kata, Anda juga dapat berlatih dengan menggunakan media film dengan teks Bahasa Inggris, mendengarkan lagu-lagu berbahasa Inggris, serta sering membuka kamus baik kamus online maupun kamus buku untuk memahami makna dari setiap kata yang belum Anda mengerti. Atau, Anda juga dapat menggunakan CD yang biasanya disertakan sepaket dengan buku-buku latihan TOEFL.

Dalam CD tersebut, Anda akan dapat berlatih banyak kemampuan listening dengan beragam metode dan model soal yang berbeda-beda. Semakin banyak Anda mengenal ragam soal dan metode pembelajaran TOEFL, maka akan semakin tajam kemampuan listening Anda untuk menghadapi ujian TOEFL yang sebenarnya. Dengan cara ini, Anda dapat menaikkan skor Anda dalam memahami soal-soal TOEFL listening.

Untuk mengetahui sejauh mana kemampuan TOEFL ITP Anda dalam bidang Listening, Ayo coba kuis dibawah ini! Kuis TOEFL listening ini adalah satu dari tiga sesi kuis TOEFL yang ada. Untuk mencoba semua kuis dari tiga sesi TOEFL ITP, silahkan klik Tes TOEFL Online ini!

Listening Comprehension

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  1. 1. Question

    SECTION 1

    LISTENING COMPREHENSION

    Time-approximately 35 minutes

    (including the reading of the directions for each part)
    In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section. Answer all the questions on . the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

    Part A

    Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
    Listen to an example.

    On the recording, you hear:

    (man) That exam was just awful.
    (woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
    (narrator) What does the woman mean?

    In your test book, you read: (A) The exam was really awful.
    (B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
    (C) It couldn’t have been more difficult.
    (D) It wasn’t that hard.

    You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that the
    woman disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman mean?” is
    (D), “It wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

    (A) The coffee is much better this morning.
    (B) The coffee tastes extremely good.
    (C) The coffee isn’t very good.
    (D) This morning he definitely wants some coffee.

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  31. Question 31 of 50
    31. Question

    Part B (Section Score)

    Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

    After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

    Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

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  39. Question 39 of 50
    39. Question

    Part C (Lecture)
    Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
    After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

    Here is an example.

    On the recording, you hear:

    (narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.
    (man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the school of painting known as American
    regionalist, a style reflecting the distinctive characteristics of art from rural areas of the United States. Wood began drawing animals on the family farm at the age of three, and when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings received a remarkable amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting, called “American Gothic,” is a starkly simple depiction of a serious couple staring directly out at the viewer.

    Now listen to a sample question.

    (narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist?

    In your test book, you read:
    (A) Art from America’s inner cities
    (B) Art from the central region of the United States
    (C) Art from various urban areas in the United States
    (D) Art from rural sections of America
    The best answer to the question, “What style of painting is known as American regionalist?” is (D), “Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

    Now listen to another sample question.

    (narrator) What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?

    In your test book, you read:
    (A) “American Regionalist”
    (B) “The Family Farm in Iowa”
    (C) “American Gothic”
    (D) “A Serious Couple”

    The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?” is (C), “American Gothic.” Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
    Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

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  47. Question 47 of 50
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Related

Sekarang saya akan menjelaskan sedikit tentang TOEFL..
PENJELASAN
Sebagaimana diketahui, TOEFL Test (Paper Based Test) terdiri atas 3 section :
- Listening Comprehension (50 Pertanyaan)
- Structure & Written Expression (40 Pertanyaan)
- Reading Comprehension (60 Pertanyaan)
Seluruh soal (150 soal) harus anda selesaikan menjawabnya dalam 100 menit.
Penjelasan untuk section 1 : Listening comprehension :
Listening Comprehension terbagi atas 3 bagian :
- Part A:
Disini anda akan mendengar speaker membacakan kalimat-kalimat tertentu untuk setiap nomor soal. Tugas anda adalah mencari kalimat pada pilihan jawaban A, B, C, D, yang artinya paling mendekati arti kalimat yang dibacakan. Jangan terkecoh dengan pilihan jawaban yang mengandung kata-kata yang serupa dengan yang dibacakan speaker di audio, karena itu biasanya jawaban yang salah. Jadi, carilah kalimat jawaban yang arti keseluruhannya serupa dengan kalimat yang dibacakan, dan bukan jawaban yang hanya berisi kata-kata yang sama, tapi bisa jadi arti keseluruhannya berbeda.
Part B :
Disini, untuk setiap nomor soal, akan ada pembicaraan antara Laki-laki (Man) dan Perempuan (Woman). Lalu diikuti pertanyaan. Tugas anda menjawab pertanyaan, berdasarkan percakapan yang anda dengar.
Part C :
Pada Part C, anda akan mendengar satu cerita/percakapan panjang, yang harus anda gunakan untuk menjawab 3-5 pertanyaan. Karena itu, adalah penting sekali bagi anda untuk dapat mengingat data/informasi penting yang disampaikan dalam percakapan/cerita.
Untuk Section 2 & 3, kerjakan seperti test biasa.
Time : 30 Minutes
50 Questions
Part A
DIRECTIONS
For Each Problem in Part A, you will hear a short statement. The statement will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in order to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, read the four sentences in your test book and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.
1. (A). Sally went to the wrong class
(B). Sally was late for class because she got lost
(C). Sally missed the class
(D). Sally had some trouble finding the class, but she arrived on time
2. (A). Jane is going on vacation
(B). Jane is leaving her job temporarily for health reason.
(C). During the summer, Jane often misses work because of illness
(D). Jane is sick of working all the time
3. (A). Henry arrived at work on time this morning
(B). Henry was two hours late this morning.
(C). Henry worked late today.
(D). Henry was an hour late for work this morning.
4. (A). I’m not sure which type of flowers Jane sent me
(B). Jane received many kind of flowers.
(C). I received many kind of flowers from Jane
(D). I appreciate Jane’s sending me flowers when I was ill.
5. (A). William slept all the way from Georgia to New York.
(B). George didn’t sleep at all on the trip.
(C). William was half asleep all the time that he was driving.
(D). William didn’t sleep at all on the trip.
6. (A). Too many people came to the meeting.
(B). There were not enough people at the meeting to inspect the document.
(C). We had expected more people to come to the meeting.
(D). There were not enough seats for all the people.
7. (A). The professor said he was sorry that he had not announced the test sooner
(B). The professor was sorry that he had forgotten to bring the test to class.
(C). The professor was sorry that he hadn’t given the test earlier.
(D). The professor said he was sorry that he had not given the result of the test
sooner
8. (A). Mary is taking a leave of absence from her job because of her health.
(B). Mary is not going to return to her job.
(C). Mary is right to quit her job.
(D). Mary did very good work but now she is quitting her job.
9. (A). John will be able to buy groceries.
(B). John doesn’t have enough money to buy groceries.
(C). John wouldn’t buy groceries even if he had enough money.
(D). John can’t find his grocery money.
10. (A). Hary sold no magazine
(B). Hary sold only one magazine
(C). Hary has never sold as many magazine as he sold today
(D). Hary sold five magazine at one house
11. (A). Eighty people came to the rally
(B). Forty people came to the rally.
(C). One hundred sixty people came to the rally.
(D). One hundred people came to the rally.
12. (A). We are going to meet Fred and Mary at the movies if we had time.
(B). We went to the movies with Fred and Mary, but the theatre was closed.
(C). We couldn’t meet Fred and Mary at the movies because we didn’t have any
money.
(D). Fred and Mary were supposed to meet us at the movies, but their car broke
down.
13. (A). Frank told the contractor to do the work in spite of the cost.
(B). Frank told the contractor that the price was too high.
(C). Frank cannot afford the work on his house.
(D). Frank repaired his own house.
14. (A). I studied last night because I had to
(B). I tried to study last night but the material was too hard.
(C). I couldn’t study last night because I was very tired.
(D). I studied last night because I was bored.
15. (A). John was supposed to give the awards at the banquet but he didn’t.
(B). John was given an award, but he refused it.
(C). John didn’t go to the banquet.
(D). John went to the awards banquet but he refused to give a speech.
16. (A). Edna goes to the movie every year.
(B). Edna hasn’t gone to the movie yet this year, but last year she did.
(C). Edna doesn’t go to the movie unless she has time.
(D). Edha hasn’t seen a movie for a long time.
17. (A). He is out of sugar
(B). He puts only sugar in his coffee.
(C). There isn’t enough sugar in his coffee.
(D). He likes sugar but the coffee he is drinking has too much.
18. (A). Arnold was embarrassed because his date wanted to pay for her own meal.
(B). Arnold had less than $15.
(C). Arnold didn’t want his date to know how much the food cost.
(D). Arnold didn’t want to pay for his date’s meal.
19. (A). George didn’t have $1000 for the man.
(B). George wanted more than $1000 for the car.
(C). George agreed to take $1000 for his car.
(D). George thought that $1000 was too much to pay for a used car.
20. (A). Harvey turned around to answer the teacher’s question.
(B). Harvey is an intelligent student.
(C). Harvey must have been embarrassed.
(D). Harvey looked in the red book for the answer to the question.

PART B
DIRECTIONS
In part B, you will hear 15 short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question will be spoken just one time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.

21. (A). She’s tired of teaching.
(B). She was dismissed from her job
(C). She’s changing jobs.
(D). The school is too hot.
22. (A). She got up later than usual.
(B). The bus was late.
(C). She forgot her class.
(D). Her clock was wrong.
23. (A). $39
(B). $35
(C). $4
(D). $5
24. (A). She thinks his lectures are boring.
(B). She thinks his tests are too long.
(C). She doesn’t like his choice of test questions.
(D). She doesn’t think he prepares well enough.
25. (A). getting a suntan.
(B). swimming.
(C). taking a bath.
(D). watching for an eclipse.
26. (A). looking for water
(B). planting something
(C). looking for something
(D). getting dirty.
27. (A). a movie
(B). a documentary.
(C). a soccer game
(D). a comedy
28. (A). America
(B). England
(C). Switzerland
(D). Sweden
29. (A). 2:50
(B). 2:15
(C). 3:50
(D). 3:15
30. (A). The woman will go home for dinner.
(B). The woman won’t go to the concert.
(C). The man and woman will eat together.
(D). Both of them will go home before going to the concert.
31. (A). Wiwtner
(B). Wittner
(C). Wittmer
(D). Witner
32. (A). 7:55
(B). 7:45
(C). 7:50
(D). 8:00
33. (A). $17.50
(B). $19.95
(C). $35
(D). $70
34. (A). 5
(B). 3
(C). 2
(D). 8
35. (A). on a train
(B). on a boat
(C). on a plane
(D). on a bus
Part C
DIRECTIONS.
In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and/or conversations. After each talk or conversation, you will be asked some questions. The talks and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

36. (A). Spain
(B). Latin America
(C). Florida
(D). America
37. (A). soccer
(B). handball
(C). football
(D). horse racing
38. (A). Jai alai is one of the fastest moving games.
(B). Jai alai requires a great deal of skill and endurance.
(C). Jai alai can be played as singles or doubles.
(D). It is illegal to bet on Florida jai alai games.
39. (A). baseball
(B). Ping-Pong
(C). handball
(D). badminton
40. (A). in a clothing store
(B). in customs
(C). at a bank
(D). in a liquor store
41. (A). 1
(B). 2
(C). 3
(D). 4
42. (A). four weeks
(B). three weeks
(C). four months
(D). two months
43. (A). plants
(B). rum
(C). meat
(D). $100
44. (A). multiple telegraph
(B). telephone
(C). aviation
(D). acoustics
45. (A). acoustical science
(B). aviation
(C). adventure
(D). architecture
46. (A). He worked very hard, but never achieved success.
(B). He spent so many years working in aviation because he wanted to be a pilot
(C). He dedicated his life to science and the well being of mankind
(D). He worked with the deaf so that he could invent the telephone
47. (A). Bell was born in the eighteenth century.
(B). Bell worked with the deaf
(C). Bell experimented with the science of acoustics.
(D). Bell invented a multiple telegraph.

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48. (A). 100
(B). 25
(C). 35
(D). 50
49. (A). He wrote an adventure novel.
(B). He was a spy.
(C). He was a bull fighter
(D). He wrote about bullfighting
50. (A). a thrilling novel of espionage
(B). an account of bullfighting
(C). a history of Spain
(D). a biography of Ernest Hemingway

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION.
______________________________________________________________
Time : 25 Minutes, 40 questions.

Part A
DIRECTIONS
Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked A,B,C,D. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. The attorney told his client that _________________________
A. They had little chance of winning the case.
B. The case was of a small chance to win
C. It was nearly impossible to win him the case.
D. The case had a minimum chance to be won by him.

2. One of the professor’s greatest attributes is _______________
A. when he gives lectures
B. how in the manner that he lectures
C. the way to give lectures
D. his ability to lecture

3. The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained _______________
A. a remembrance that interest rate were to raise the following month
B. a reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following
C. to remember that interest rates were going up next month
D. a reminder that interest rates would rise the following month.

4. ______________ was the day before yesterday.
A. The France’s Independence Day
B. The day of the French independence
C. French’s Independence Day
D. France’s Independence Day

5. It was not until she had arrived home ______________ remembered her appointment with the doctor.
A. when she
B. that she
C. and she
D. she

6. George would certainly have attended the proceedings ________________
A. if he didn’t get a flat tire
B. if the flat tire hadn’t happended.
C. had he not had a flat tire
D. had the tire not flattened itself.

7. _______________ received law degrees as today.
A. Never so many women have
B. Never have so many women
C. The women aren’t ever
D. Women who have never

8. The students liked that professor’s course because _____________________
A. there was few if any homework
B. not a lot of homework
C. of there wasn’t a great amount of homework
D. there was little or no homework.

9. George ______________ he could improve his test scores, but he didn’t have enough time to study.
A. knew to
B. knew how
C. knew how that
D. knew how to

10. _________________ he would have come to class.
A. If Mike is able to finish his homework
B. Would Mike be able to finish his homework
C. If Mike could finish his homework
D. If Mike had been able to finish his homework.

11. Lee contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute _______________
A. one other fifty dollars
B. the same amount also
C. another fifty
D. more fifty dollars

12. The people at the party were worried about Janet because no one was aware _____________ she had gone.
A. where that
B. of where
C. of the place where
D. the place

13. Fred’s yearly income since he changed professions has _________________
A. nearly tripled
B. got almost three times bigger
C. almost grown by three times
D. just about gone up three times

14. Nancy hasn’t begun working on her Ph.D, ________________ working on her master’s.
A. still because she is yet
B. yet as a result she is still
C. yet because she is still
D. still while she is already

15. The director of this organization must know _____________________
A. money management, selling, and able to satisfy the stockholders
B. how to manage money, selling his product, and be able to satisfy the stockholders
C. how to manage money, sell his product, and satisfy the stockholders
D. money management, selling, the idea of being able to satisfy the stockholders.
Part B
DIRECTIONS
In question 16 – 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A,B,C,D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
16. She wishes that we didn’t sendher the candy yesterday because she’s on a diet.................A .......B ..............C .......D
17. They are planning onattending the convention next month, and so I am.
............A ......B ...............C ...........D
18. Today was such beautiful day that I couldn’t bring myselfto complete all my chores...........A ........... ..B ........C .....D
19. While they were away at the beach, they allowed their neighborsuse their
.... A ......B ..............................C ...D
barbeque grill.
20. The artist tried stimulateinterest in painting by taking his students to the
................A .....B ...........C ..............D
museums.
21. Mumps are a very common diseasewhichusually affects children.
.........A ...........B ......C.... D
22. Nancy said that she wentto the supermarket before coming home.
............A......B ..C ................D
23. Before she moved here, Arlene had been president of the organization since
.... A......................B ..........C ............D
four years.
24. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name
........A ........B ..........................C
is called.
..D
25. The athlete, together withhis coach, and several relatives, are traveling to
.......A ...........B ...C ....................D
the Olympic Games.
26. Professor Duncan teachesbothanthropology as well as sociology each fall.
.................A ....B .....C ....................D
27. My brother is in California on vacation, but I wish he was here so that he
............A .......B .................C
could help me repair my car.
.............D
28. I certainly appreciate himtelling us about the delay in delivering the materials
......A ...........B ...C ..................D
because we had planned to begin work tomorrow.
29. The chemistry instructor explained the experiment insuch of a way that it
.....................................A....B
waseasily understood.
.C......D
30. Rudolf Nureyef has become one of the greatestdancer that the ballet world
................A ............. B ....C
has ever known.
......D
31. He has less friends in his classes now than he had last year.
.........A ........B ..........C .........D
32. The town we visited was a four – days journey from our hotel, so we took the
..................A .....B ..........................C
train instead of the bus.
...........D
33. The influence of the nation’s literature, art, and sciencehave captured
...................A .................B ....C
widespread attention.
...D
34. The leader emphasized the needfor justice and equality between his people.
.....................A .....B ...............C .......D
35. Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual laborers.
....A ....................B ........C ............D
36. Several people haveapparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses
..............A ....B ..................C
to listen.
..D
37. Keith is one of themost intelligent boys of the science class.
..............A ..B ............C .....D
38. The girls were sorry to had missed the singers when they arrived at the
............A ........B .............C .......D
airport.
39. When Keith visited Alaska, he lived in a igloo in the winter monthsas well as in
........................A...B ..............C ......D
the spring.
40. The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
............. A ......B ......C ...........D

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS UP, CHECK YOUR WORK ON PARTS A AND B OF THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.
SECTION III. VOCABULARY AND READING COMPREHENSION.
Time : 45 Minutes
60 Questions
Part A
DIRECTIONS
In questions 1-30 each sentence has an underlined word or phrase. Below each sentence are four other words or phrases, marked A,B,C,D. You are to choose the one word or phrase that best keeps the meaning of the original sentence if it is substituted for the underlined word or phrase. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. The fourth year sociology class was a homogeneous group of university students.
A. uniform
B. dreary
C. unrelated
D. distinguishable

2. The tornado caused irreparable damage to the Florida citrus corp.
A. irresolute
B. irresponsible
C. irrecoverable
D. irregular

3. The discontented students retaliated by boycotting the school cafeteria.
A. rewarded
B. vindicated
C. took revenge
D. fluctuated

4. The spy used a fictitious name while dealing with the enemy.
A. funny
B. false
C. real
D. foreign

5. John didn’t enjoy the rock concert because he thought the tempo was bad.
A. audience
B. rhythm
C. singer
D. weather

6. The flowers on the table were a manifestation of the child’s love for his mother
A. a demonstration
B. an infestation
C. a combination
D. a satisfaction

7. Marvin’s doctor said he was obese and had to take immediate measures to correct the problem.
A. anemic
B. tired
C. corpulent
D. petulant

8. Frank condoned his brother’s actions because he knew he meant well.
A. overlooked
B. praised
C. condemned
D. satisfied

9. John’s unabashed behavior caused great concern among his teachers.
A. terrible
B. unembarrassed
C. cowardly
D. unforgivable

10. Many new medicines today eradicate diseases before they become too widespread.
A. wipe out
B. identify
C. prolong
D. suspend

11. The director’s spacious new office overlooked the city.
A. quiet
B. colorful
C. roomy
D. comfortable

12. The thieves were trying to perpetrate a robbery in the office building.
A. view
B. interfere with
C. stop
D. commit

13. Before the earthquake hit the area, many minor tremors were felt.
A. spasms
B. noises
C. vibrations
D. crumblings

14. When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach towel, the audience was dumbfounded.
A. speechless
B. excited
C. content
D. applauding

15. Marcia’s career involved a dual role for her as a counselor and a teacher.
A. tiring
B. dedicated
C. twofold
D. satisfying

16. Andy’s jocular manner made him loved by all his companion.
A. easygoing
B. jesting
C. intelligent
D. artistic

17. Sally was mortified by her date’s unprecedented behavior
A. eradicated
B. humiliated
C. overjoyed
D. challenged

18. The student’s wan appearance caused the teacher to send him home.
A. pale
B. shabby
C. bellicose
D. hungry

19. Nothing could efface the people’s memory of their former leader’s cruelty although many years had elapsed.
A. broaden
B. erase
C. edify
D. substantiate

Soal20. The doctor asked the patient to disrobe before the examination.
A. take medicine
B. breathe deeply
C. relax
D. undress

21. The protesting crowd dispersed after the rally
A. scattered
B. become violent
C. fought
D. danced

22. Because Dolly is such a good cook, she has concocted a great new recipe.
A. created
B. named
C. epitomized
D. baked

23. After the drops were placed in the patient’s eyes, his pupils became dilated.
A. enlarged
B. smaller
C. irritated
D. sensible

24. Her brusque manner surprised all of the guests.
A. satirical
B. humorous
C. shameless
D. abrupt

25. In that organization, they place emphasis on mutual aid and cooperation.
A. reward
B. work
C. stress
D. pressure

26. She didn’t say much, but her tone of voice insinuated more.
A. blamed
B. suggested
C. demanded
D. intervened

27. Jan took many snapshots while on vacation in Europe.
A. notes
B. gifts
C. photos
D. clothes

28. The young couple chose a secluded place for their picnic.
A. authentic
B. sunny
C. isolated
D. grassy

29. The daring young man rode through the Indian village trying to find his long-lost sister.
A. bold
B. cowardly
C. persistent
D. captured

30. The victors defined their terms to be conquered.
A. dictated
B. wrote
C. insinuated
D. forced.

Part B
DIRECTIONS
In the rest of this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. For questions 31 – 60, you are to choose the one best answer, A,B,C,D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Questions 31 through 34 are based on the following reading.
Elizabeth Blackwell was born in England in 1821, and emigrated to New York City when she was ten years old. One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor. That was nearly impossible for a woman in the middle of the nineteenth century. After writing many letters seeking admission to medical school, she was finally accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. So determined was she, that she taught school and gave music lessons to earn money for her tuition.
In1849, after graduation from medical school, she decided to further her education in Paris. She wanted to be a surgeon, but a serious eye infection forced her to abandon the idea.
Upon returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her own practice because she was a woman. By 1857 Elizabeth and her sister, also a doctor, along with another female doctor, managed to open a new hospital, the first for women and children. Besides being the first female physician and founding her own hospital, she also established the first medical school for women.
31. Why couldn’t Elizabeth Blackwell realize her dreams of becoming a surgeon ?
A. She couldn’t get admitted to medical school.
B. She decided to further her education in Paris.
C. A serious eye infection halted her quest.
D. It was difficult for her to start a practice in the United States.

32. What main obstacle almost destroyed Elizabeth’s chances for becoming a doctor ?
A. She was a woman
B. She wrote too many letters
C. She couldn’t graduate from medical school.
D. She couldn’t establish her hospital.

33. How many years elapsed between her graduation from medical school and the opening of her hospital?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 19
D. 36

34. All of the following are “firsts” in the life of Elizabeth Blackwell, except :
A. she became the first female physician.
B. she was the first woman surgeon
C. she and several other women founded the first hospital for women and children.
D. she established the first medical school for women.

Questions 35 through 38 are based on the following reading.
Glands manufacture and secrete necessary substances. Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts, but endocrine glands, or ductless glands release their products directly into the bloodstream.
One important endocrine gland is the thyroid gland. It is in the neck and has two lobes, one on each side of the windpipe. The thyroid gland collects iodine from the blood and produces thyroxine, an important hormone, which is stores in an inactive form. When thyroxine is needed by the body, the thyroid gland excretes it directly into the bloodstream. Thyroxine is combined in the body cells with other chemicals and affects many functions of the body.
The thyroid gland may be underactive or overactive, resulting in problems. An underactive thyroid causes hypothyroidism, while an overactive one causes hyperthyroidism. The former problem, called myxedema in adults and cretinism in children, causes the growth process to slow down. A cretin’s body and mind do not grow to their full potential. Hyperthyroidism, on the other hand, results in extreme nervousness, an increase in heart action, and other problems.
Either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism may result in goiter, or an enlarged thyroid gland. A goiter will appear when the body is not getting enough iodine. Goiter is less common today, since most people use iodized salt.
35. The thyroid gland is called an endocrine gland
A. because it has ducts
B. because it has lobes
C. because it excretes directly into the bloodstream
D. because it is located in the neck.

36. A cretin is
A. a child with hyperthyroidism
B. an adult with an underperforming thyroid gland
C. a young person with hypothyroidism
D. an extremely irritable child

37. Which of the following is a probable result of myxedema ?
A. sluggishness
B. hyperactivity
C. overproduction of thyroxine
D. perspiration

38. A goiter is
A. a person with myxedema
B. a swollen thyroid gland
C. an underactive thyroid gland
D. a chemical.

Questions 39 through 43 are based on the following reading.
A recent investigation by scientists at the US Geological Survey shows that strange animal behavior might help predict future earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences in a ten – kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Scientists believe that animals can perceive these environmental changes as early as several days before the mishap.
In 1976 after observing animal behavior, the Chinese were able to predict a devastating quake. Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of other people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
39. What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior ?
A. an impending earthquake
B. the number of people who will die
C. the ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter
D. environmental changes.

40. Why can animals perceive these changes when humans cannot ?
A. Animals are smarter than humans
B. Animals have certain instincts that humans don’t possess.
C. By running around the house, they can feel the vibrations.
D. Humans don’t know where to look.

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41. Which of the following is not true
A. Some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake.
B. By observing animal behavior scientists perhaps can predict earthquakes.
C. The Chinese have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved many lives.
D. All birds and dogs in a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter went wild before the quake.

42. In this passage, the word evacuate most nearly means
A. remove
B. exile
C. destroy
D. emaciate

43. If scientists can accurately predict earthquakes, there will be :
A. fewer animals going crazy
B. a lower death rate
C. fewer people evacuated
D. fewer environmental changes.
Questions 44 through 47 are based on the following reading.
As a result of the recent oil crisis, 9.9 million of California’s 15 million motorists were subjected to an old-even plan of gas rationing. The governor signed a bill forcing motorists with license plates ending in odd numbers to buy gas only on odd-numbered days, and those ending in even numbers on even-numbered days. Those whose plates were all letters or specially printed had to follow the odd-numbered plan.
Exceptions were made only for emergencies and out-of-states drivers. Those who could not get gas were forced to walk, bike, or skate to work.
This plan was expected to eliminate the long lines at many service stations. Those who tried to purchase more than twenty gallons of gas or tried to fill a more than half filled tank would be fined and possibly imprisoned.
44. All of the following are true except
A. officials hoped that this plan would alleviate long gas lines.
B. a gas limit was imposed
C. California has 9.9 million drivers
D. the governor signed the bill concerning gas rationing.

45. Those who violated the rationing program
A. were forced to walk
B. were fined and possibly imprisoned
C. had to wait in long lines
D. were forced to use odd-numbered days

46. The gas rationing plan was not binding on
A. even-numbered license plates
B. odd-numbered license plates.
C. all-lettered plates
D. out-of-state plates

47. California was forced to adapt this plan because
A. a recent oil crisis necessitated id
B. too many drivers were filling their tanks with more than twenty gallons and spilling it
C. people were not getting enough exercise and needed to walk, bike, or skate
D. too many motorists had odd – numbered plates


Questions 48 through 52 are based on the following passage.
As far back as 700 B.C., man has talked about children being cared for by wolves. Romulus and Remus, the legendary twin founders of Rome, were purported to have been cared for by wolves. It is believed that when a she-wolf loses her litter, she seeks a human child to take its place.
This seemingly preposterous idea did not become credible until the late nineteenth century when a French doctor actually found a naked ten-year-old boy wandering in the woods. He didn’t walk erect, could not speak intelligibly, nor could he relate to people. He only growled and stared at them. Finally the doctor won the boy’s confidence and began to work with him. After many long years of devoted and patient instruction, the doctor was able to get the boy to clothe and feed himself, recognize and uttera number of words, as well as write letters and form words.
48. The French doctor found the boy
A. wandering in the woods
B. at his doorstep
C. growling at him
D. speaking intelligibly.

49. In this passage, the word litter most nearly means
A. garbage
B. master
C. offspring
D. hair

50. The doctor was able to work with the boy because
A. the boy was highly intelligent
B. the boy trusted him
C. the boy liked to dress up
D. the boy was dedicated and patient

51. Which of the following statements is not true ?
A. She-wolves have been said to substitute human children for their lost litters
B. Examples of wolves’ caring for human children can be found only in the nineteenth century.
C. The French doctor succeeded in domesticating the boy somewhat
D. The young boy never was able to speak perfectly

52. In this passage, the word preposterous most nearly means
A. dedicated
B. scientific
C. wonderful
D. absurd
Directions for questions 53 and 54
For each of these questions, choose the answer that is closest in meaning to the original sentence. Note that several of the choices may be factually correct, but you should choose the one that is closest restatement of the given sentence.
53. Hal used to play on the country club’s racquetball team.
A. Hal plays with the racquetball team at the country club
B. Hal doesn’t play racquetball anymore, but still belongs to the country club.
C. At one time hall played racquetball on the country club’s team.
D. Hal used to team up with the country club and play racquetball

54. Peter is attending a private school and is majoring in electronics.
A. Peter is specializing in electronics at a private school
B. Peter is a major at a private electronics school.
C. although Peter is attending a private school, he’s majoring in electronics.
D. Peter’s private school is letting him major in electronics.

Questions 55 through 60 are based on the following reading.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a bacteria that has been isolated from sea water, shell fish, finfish, plankton, and salt springs. It has been a major cause of food poisoning in Japan and the Japanese have done several studies on it. They have confirmed the presence of V. parahaemolyticus in the north and central Pacific with the highest abundance in inshore waters, particularly in or near large harbors.
A man named Nishio studied the relationship between the chloride content of sea water and the seasonal distribution of V. parahaemolyticus in sea water and concluded that while the isolation of V. parahaemolyticus was independent of the sodium chloride content, the distribution of V. parahaemolyticus in sea water was dependent on the water temperature. In fact, it has been isolated in high frequencies during summer, from June to September, but was not isolated with the same frequency in winter.
Within four or five days after eating contaminated foods, a person will begin to experience diarrhea, the most common symptom; this will very often be accompanied by stomach cramps, nausea, and vomiting. Headache and fever, with or without chills, may also be experienced.
55. Which of the following locations would be most likely to have a high concentration of Vibrio parahaemolyticus ?
A. a bay
B. a sea
C. the middle of the ocean
D. sediment

56. The safest time for eating seafood is probably
A. August
B. November
C. July
D. September

57. The most common symptom of Vibrio parahaemolyticus is
A. nausea
B. diarrhea
C. vomiting
D. headache and fever
58. The incubation period for this illness is
A. several months
B. 2 to 3 days
C. 3 to 4 hours
D. 4 to 5 days

59. Nishio’s study showed that
A. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was dependent on neither the salt content nor the water temperature
B. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was dependent on only the salt content
C. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was independent on of both the water temperature and the salt content
D. the presence of Vibrio parahaemolyticus was dependent on the water temperature

60. The word cramp in the reading means most nearly
A. noises
B. toxicity
C. severe pain
D. high temperature